Male Nursing Assistant Exam 2025

This Kerala PSC previous solved question paper for the Male Nursing Assistant exam covers a wide range of topics essential for nursing professionals. The questions test knowledge in health dimensions, patient care, medical procedures, anatomy, and emergency response, reflecting the practical and theoretical skills required in the field.

1. The ability of an individual to interact successfully with others belongs to the ______ dimension of health.

A) Emotional
B) Social
C) Spiritual
D) Environmental

2. The professional element that allows a healthcare worker to express her feelings and ideas without judging or hurting others.

A) Assertiveness
B) Trustworthiness
C) Autonomy
D) Courtesy

3. Which function of a hospital is primarily served when the hospital is providing curative services to acutely ill patients?

A) Diagnostic
B) Preventive
C) Therapeutic
D) Rehabilitative

4. A group of healthcare workers, including an MPHW, ANM, JPHN and ASHA is employed in a community area. Who is not registered with the state nursing council?

A) MPHW
B) ANM
C) JPHN
D) ASHA

5. Avoiding emotional conflict by refusing to acknowledge anything that causes severe emotional pain consciously.

A) Denial
B) Conversion
C) Regression
D) Compensation

6. While transferring a patient, a healthcare worker twists her body to reach for a trolley which is kept behind her without moving her legs. Which concept of body mechanics is compromised?

A) Centre of gravity
B) Co-ordinated movement
C) Alignment
D) Balance

7. A nurse is giving health education to a patient to go for a routine dental check-up. He does not know about the importance of dental hygiene and also seems not motivated for the check-up. Which priority aspect needs to be addressed to ensure the patient's dental visit?

A) Knowledge alone
B) Motivation alone
C) Knowledge and motivation
D) Leave it to his decision

8. A nurse is giving care to a mother after a normal delivery. Which function does NOT need to be addressed normally?

A) Promotion of health
B) Restoring health
C) Prevention of illness
D) Coping with disability

9. The nursing action best falling under the category of primary prevention.

A) Screening
B) Wound dressing
C) Crutch training
D) Health education

10. The sleep disorder health-care workers are prone to develop due to long working schedules and rotating shifts.

A) Sleep deprivation
B) Sleep apnoea
C) Narcolepsy
D) Insomnia

11. A bed which will remain empty until the admission of another client is.

A) Closed bed
B) Open bed
C) Post operative bed
D) Fracture bed

12. Bad breath is otherwise known as.

A) Gingivitis
B) Cheliosis
C) Halitosis
D) Glossitis

13. What is the standard procedure to verify initial placement of nasogastric feeding tube.

A) Aspiration of fluid through the tube
B) Radiographic examination
C) Air auscultation on the stomach
D) Assessing aspirate pH

14. Position used for administering enema is.

A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Left lateral with right knee flexed
D) Lithotomy

15. Bed cradle is used to.

A) Support and take off the weight of the top bed cloths
B) Rise the foot end or head end of the bed
C) Immobilise the part of the body
D) Provide support to back

16. Local application of moist heat to the pelvis or rectal area by sitting in a basin filled with warm water is called.

A) Paraffin bath
B) Local bath
C) Diathermy
D) Sitz bath

17. Pressure ulcer in which partial thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is.

A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4

18. Alteration in respiration characterized by the irregular respiratory rhythm with alternating periods of apnea and hyperventilation is called.

A) Orthopnea
B) Cheyne stokes respiration
C) Dyspnea
D) Kussmauls respiration

19. Most accurate site for measuring temperature among the following is.

A) Rectal
B) Axilla
C) Oral
D) Temporal

20. For a patient admitted with breathing difficulty, most appropriate position to promote maximum lung expansion is.

A) Lateral position
B) Sim's position
C) Fowler's position
D) Supine position

21. Contraindication to hot water bag application is.

A) Acute appendicitis
B) Urinary retention
C) Muscles spasm
D) Joint Stiffness

22. Steam under pressure sterilization is also known as.

A) Fumigation
B) Dry heat
C) Autoclaving
D) Disinfection

23. During nasogastric tube insertion, if the patient starts chocking, immediately.

A) Aspirate the fluid from the stomach
B) Secure the tube with tape
C) Withdraw tube
D) Auscultate on the stomach

24. The difference between apical pulse and radial pulse is called.

A) Pulse pressure
B) Bradycardia
C) Atrial flutter
D) Pulse deficit

25. What assisting with lumbar puncture insertion, the position used to withdraw CSF sample is.

A) Prone position with pillow under the abdomen
B) Lateral recumbent position, with legs pulled up and head bent down onto chest
C) Prone position in slight Tredelenburg
D) Lateral recumbent position with pillow under the hip

26. What is the correct way to cleanse the perineal area before catheter insertion?

A) Use antiseptic wipes in circular motion, starting from the urethra outwards
B) Use a clean, dry cloth to wipe the area
C) Use soap and water, moving from the urethra outwards
D) Use alcohol swabs to disinfect the area

27. When collecting the arterial blood gas sample, which of the following should be avoided?

A) Use syringe containing heparin
B) Perform allen's test
C) Carry sample to laboratory immediately
D) Shake the sample vigorously before sending to the lab

28. The lowest percentage of inspired oxygen is delivered by.

A) Nasal Cannula
B) Simple face mask
C) Venturi Mask
D) Non rebreather mask

29. Which of the following indicate paracentesis is effective for the patient?

A) Normal B.P.
B) Clear colour of abdominal fluid drained
C) Reduction in abdominal distension
D) Normal bowel sounds

30. What does FM4C stands for?

A) Functional needle aspiration cytology
B) Fine needle aspiration cytology
C) Functional needle arterial catheterisation
D) Fine needle aspiration catheterisation

31. Intercostal drainage tube is not commonly used to treat which of the following condition.

A) Flail chest
B) Pneumothorax
C) Haemothorax
D) Tuberculosis

32. What indicate proper functioning of a chest tube?

A) Continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
B) Absence of drainage
C) Blood in the tubing
D) Decreased breath sounds

33. Liver mortis is.

A) Stiffening of body muscles
B) Cooling of the body
C) Setting of blood in dependent body parts
D) Onset of decomposition of tissues

34. What is the main purpose of lying the jaw and closing the eyes in dead body care?

A) For religious practices
B) To maintain natural appearance
C) To prevent rigor mortis
D) To keep airway open

35. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for an adult during single rescuer CPR?

A) 2:15
B) 15:2
C) 5:2
D) 30:2

36. Which urine test is used to detect ketone bodies?

A) Benedict's test
B) Hay's test
C) Rothera's test
D) Sulpho Salicyclic acid test

37. The most common site of bone marrow aspiration in children under 2 years is.

A) Tibia
B) Sternum
C) Iliac Crest
D) Femur

38. What type of needle is typically used for bore marrow aspiration?

A) Spinal needle
B) LP Needle
C) Jamshidi Needle
D) Hypodermic Needle

39. Which is not a type of patient admission?

A) internal referral discharge
B) Emergency admission
C) Ambulatory admission
D) Scheduled admission

40. When performing eye care for an unconscious patient, one should.

A) Leave the eyes open
B) Clean once daily
C) Apply prescribed lubricants
D) Avoid touching the eyelids

41. What is the primary mechanism by which antibodies protect against viral infections?

A) Neutralization of viral particles
B) Activation of complement proteins
C) Antibody Dependent Cellular Cytotoxicity (ADCC)
D) Phagocytosis of infected cells

42. What is the typical pore size that HEPA filters are designed to capture with a minimum efficiency of 99.97 %?

A) 0.1 - 5 microns
B) 0.3 microns
C) 1.0-5.0 microns
D) 0.12 microns

43. What is the typical concentration of povidone - iodine Routinely used?

A) 0.5%
B) 0.5% - 5%
C) 10%
D) 70% - 80%

44. What is the primary purpose of using biological indicators in sterilization processes?

A) To monitor temperature and pressure
B) To detect the presence of endotoxins
C) To assess the efficacy of a sterilization
D) To measure the concentration of sterilizing agents

45. "Cerebrospinal fever" is the example of.

A) Sporadic infection
B) Endemic infection
C) Epidemic infection
D) Prosodemic infection

46. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), What is considered the gold standard method for monitoring hand hygiene adherence?

A) Electronic monitoring systems
B) Direct observation
C) Patient feedback
D) Automated dispenser counts

47. Which of the following fungal infections is most likely to cause pneumonia in immuno compromised individuals?

A) Candidiasis
B) Aspergillosis
C) Cryptococcosis
D) Mucomycosis

48. What is the primary purpose of a positive pressure room in the context of protective isolation?

A) To prevent the spread of airborne pathogens from the patient to others
B) To protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens in the surrounding environment
C) To isolate patients with highly contagious diseases
D) To reduce the risk of hospital - acquired infections in standard patient care areas

49. What is the recommended minimum Air Change per Hour (ACH) for a protective environment room, such as those used for immunocompromised patients?

A) 6 ACH
B) 12 ACH
C) 20 ACH
D) 25 ACH

50. What do the 3Rs stand for in the waste management hierarchy?

A) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
B) Reduce, Reuse, Recover
C) Reduce, Recycle, Recover
D) Reuse, Recycle, Rethink
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