This Kerala PSC previous solved question paper for Assistant Professor in Psychiatry covers a wide range of topics in psychiatry including neurobiology, psychopharmacology, psychiatric disorders across lifespan, psychotherapy, and mental health legislation. The questions test both foundational knowledge and clinical application skills essential for psychiatric practice.
1. Gilal cells primarily involved in synaptic transmission are
Astrocytes are star-shaped glial cells that regulate synaptic transmission by controlling neurotransmitter levels and ion concentrations in the synaptic cleft.
2. The region of the prefrontal cortex involved in the manipulation of data during the working memory task is
The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) is crucial for executive functions including working memory manipulation and cognitive flexibility.
3. Ligand-gated ion channels are the primary mechanism of signal transduction for
GABA (γ-aminobutyric acid) primarily acts through GABA-A receptors which are ligand-gated chloride channels mediating fast inhibitory neurotransmission.
4. The FALSE statement about Neuropeptide Y (NPY) is
Research shows REDUCED NPY levels in suicidal depressed patients' frontal cortex, making statement C false.
5. Anatomic connectivity between different brain areas is best studied by
Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI) maps white matter tracts by measuring water diffusion anisotropy along neuronal pathways.
6. "Inside to outside" neurogenesis and neuronal migration are seen in
The neocortex develops via inside-out migration where newer neurons migrate past older ones to form superficial layers.
7. In the Hypothalamus, orexin-containing neurons are found in
Orexin/hypocretin neurons are concentrated in the lateral hypothalamic area and regulate arousal, wakefulness, and appetite.
8. The CORRECT statement about α-rhythm in EEG is
Alpha rhythm (8-13Hz) is posterior-dominant and attenuates with eye opening (alpha blockade), a hallmark of awake relaxed state.
9. The best-documented effect of endogeneous opioids is
Endogenous opioids (endorphins/enkephalins) primarily modulate pain perception via μ, δ, and κ receptors in pain pathways.
10. Proinflammatory cytokines are all EXCEPT
IL-2 is primarily immunoregulatory (T-cell growth factor) rather than proinflammatory like IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-α.
11. The FALSE statement about the ICD-11 criteria of schizophrenia is
ICD-11 eliminated schizophrenia subtypes (paranoid/catatonic etc.) present in ICD-10, focusing on symptom dimensions instead.
12. The neurotransmitter system NOT linked to Psychosis is
While dopamine (D2), serotonin (5HT2A), and glutamate (NMDA) systems are implicated in psychosis, noradrenergic dysfunction has weaker evidence.
13. A FALSE statement about the use of the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is
PANSS requires trained raters as it involves semi-structured interview and operational criteria for scoring severity.
14. The CORRECT statement regarding abnormalities in smooth pursuit eye movements and saccadic eye movement disinhibition in schizophrenia
Eye tracking deficits in schizophrenia involve dysfunction in cortical areas including medial occipito-temporal regions that process motion.
16. The following Copy Number Variation (CNV) locus has been identified to be associated with schizophrenia
NRXN1 deletions are among the best-replicated CNVs associated with schizophrenia, affecting synaptic function.
18. FALSE statement about clozapine treatment in schizophrenia
Asians often require LOWER clozapine doses due to slower metabolism (higher prevalence of CYP1A2*1F alleles).
19. Which of the following factor is not a poor prognostic factor for bipolar disorder
While female gender is associated with more depressive episodes, it's not independently linked to poorer overall prognosis in bipolar disorder.
21. Which of the following is not a feature of a depressive episode that is more predictive of bipolar disorder?
Family history is a general risk factor rather than a specific predictor of bipolarity in depressive episodes.
22. Low social dysfunction is a predictor of response to which therapy for depression
IPT focuses on interpersonal relationships, making it particularly effective for depressed patients with intact social networks.
23. Which among the following does not reflect the increase in nocturnal arousal in depression?
Depression typically shows REM sleep INCREASE (shortened REM latency, more phasic REM), not decrease.
24. Life event most often associated with the development of depression is
Early parental loss is a well-established risk factor for later depression through attachment disruption and stress sensitization.
25. Aaron Beck postulated a cognitive triad of depression that consists of all of the following except
Beck's triad comprises negative views of self, world, and future - family views aren't a core component.
26. Which of the following is not an element in the cognitive theory of depression?
Cognitive distortions in depression include magnification/minimization, arbitrary inference, and schemas - not 'general abstraction'.
27. Which anxiety disorder is equally prevalent in men and women?
Social anxiety disorder has near-equal gender prevalence unlike other anxiety disorders which are female-predominant.
28. Which of the following area is not implicated in both PET and fMRI studies of anxiety?
DLPFC is more involved in cognitive control than core anxiety circuits (amygdala-vmPFC-hippocampus).
29. Which of the following is not an evidence-based recommended treatment for the monotherapy of generalised anxiety disorders either as first line or second line?
Moclobemide (RIMA) isn't recommended for GAD, unlike SSRIs/SNRIs (1st line) or pregabalin (2nd line).
30. Symptom specifiers for obsessive-compulsive disorder according to DSM 5 are all of the following, except
DSM-5 OCD insight specifiers are good/fair, poor, or absent - 'partial insight' isn't a category.
32. Which of the following is not a psychotherapeutic intervention in post traumatic stress disorder?
Interpersonal therapy isn't an evidence-based PTSD treatment unlike PE, EMDR, and trauma-focused psychodynamic therapy.
33. Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder?
Anxious-avoidant PD isn't in PTSD differentials, though BPD (with trauma history), panic and GAD share overlapping symptoms.
34. A 7-year-old boy presents with persistent defiance, temper outbursts and intentionally annoying others. These behaviours have been ongoing for over 6 months and are significantly impacting his school and home life. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
ODD is characterized by angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness without severe aggression/violation of others' rights seen in Conduct Disorder.
35. In the context of childhood development, what is a key aspect of cognitive development during the concrete operational stage (roughly ages 7-11)?
Piaget's concrete operational stage features logical thinking about concrete objects/events (conservation, classification) but limited abstract reasoning.
36. A 5-year-old child speaks only in 2-word phrases, avoids eye contact, and lines up toys repetitively. He does not respond to his name but enjoys spinning objects for long periods. The most likely diagnosis is
Core ASD features include social communication deficits (poor eye contact, name response) and restricted/repetitive behaviors (lining toys, spinning objects).
37. A 10-year-old girl has recurrent episodes of sudden, uncontrollable screaming and kicking lasting 10-20 minutes, often triggered by minor frustrations. During episodes, she is inconsolable and unaware of her surroundings but has no post-ictal confusion or incontinence. EEG and MRI are normal. The most probable diagnosis is
DMDD involves severe recurrent temper outbursts grossly out of proportion to triggers, occurring ≥3×/week in children aged 6-18 years.
38. A 78-year-old male with a known history of moderate Alzheimer's disease is brought to the emergency department by his family. They report a 2-day history of increased confusion, significant agitation, and stating he is seeing "people in his room" that others cannot see. He has been more restless than usual and has had difficulty focusing on conversations. His vital signs are stable, but he appears visibly distressed. His current medications include donepezil and memantine. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's acute change in mental status?
Acute behavioral changes in dementia patients warrant medical workup for delirium causes (UTI, pneumonia, metabolic derangements) before attributing to dementia progression or treating symptoms.
39. A 78-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled hypertension and mild osteoarthritis is brought by her daughter due to a sudden change in mental stage over the past 48 hours. She is disoriented to time and place, has fluctuating levels of alertness and is experiencing vivid visual hallucinations. Her physical exam is unremarkable except for mild tachycardia. Basic labs (CBC, CMP) are normal. Urinalysis shows 2+ leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Acute onset fluctuating cognition + hallucinations + UTI findings = classic delirium. Dementia wouldn't cause such rapid decline without medical cause.
40. A 75-year-old man with major depressive disorder and chronic kidney disease (eGFR : 30 mL/min) is being considered for an antidepressant. Which of the following is the safest first-line pharmacologic option?
Sertraline is preferred in CKD due to minimal renal excretion (vs. venlafaxine/paroxetine requiring dose adjustment) and better safety than TCAs (amitriptyline).
41. Which of the following is a common barrier preventing women from seeking mental health treatment?
Stigma remains the primary barrier to mental healthcare seeking among women across cultures.
42. What factor is most likely to contribute to postpartum depression in women after childbirth?
Postpartum hormonal fluctuations (estrogen/progesterone withdrawal) interact with psychosocial stressors to precipitate depression.
43. A 45-year old man reports loud snoring, frequent awakenings at night and excessive daytime sleepiness. His partner mentions he "stops breathing" during sleep. BMI is 32 kg/m² and neck circumference is 42 cm. The most likely diagnosis is
OSA presents with snoring, witnessed apneas, daytime sleepiness, and is strongly associated with obesity (high BMI/neck circumference).
44. A 60-year-old man complains of an "uncomfortable crawling sensation" in his legs at night, relieved only by walking. Symptoms worsen at rest and in the evening. Iron studies show serum ferritin of 18 ng/mL. The first-line treatment is
Restless Legs Syndrome with low ferritin (<50ng/mL) should first receive iron replacement before considering dopaminergics or other medications.
45. A 28-year-old male with a history of a generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) presents with persistent inability to maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity, despite normal morning erections and intact libido. He reports significant performance anxiety and avoids sexual encounters due to fear of failure. His symptoms began 6 months ago after a stressful work event. Physical exam and laboratory tests (including testosterone, prolactin, and fasting glucose) are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Psychogenic erectile dysfunction with performance anxiety is best addressed with CBT targeting anxiety/negative cognitions before pharmacotherapy.
46. A 35-year-old female with panic disorder on sertraline 150 mg daily for 18 months reports complete absence of orgasm (anorgasmia) and reduced lubrication. Symptoms began 2 months after sertraline initiation. She uses cannabis weekly and cocaine occasionally. Physical exam, pelvic, ultrasound and labs (FSH, LH, prolactin) are normal. What is the most evidence-based management?
SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction often responds to dose reduction before needing medication switches or adjuncts.
47. 25-year-old male reports episodes of consuming large amounts of food in 2-hour periods, accompanied by a sense of loss of control. He feels guilty afterward but does not engage in vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise. His BMI is 58 kg/m². What is the best diagnosis?
BED involves recurrent binge eating without compensatory behaviors, with marked distress about bingeing.
48. Primary Somatoform Disorders are all of the following except
Factitious disorder involves intentional symptom production for sick role, distinct from somatoform disorders where symptoms aren't consciously feigned.
49. Common differential diagnosis to be considered for conversion disorder
MS is a key neurologic mimic of conversion disorder due to its relapsing-remitting course and varied neurologic presentations.
50. Commonest type of dissociative disorder is
Dissociative amnesia (inability to recall important personal information) is the most prevalent dissociative disorder.