Assistant Professor in Psychiatry Exam 2025

This Kerala PSC previous solved question paper for Assistant Professor in Psychiatry covers a wide range of topics in psychiatry including neurobiology, psychopharmacology, psychiatric disorders across lifespan, psychotherapy, and mental health legislation. The questions test both foundational knowledge and clinical application skills essential for psychiatric practice.

1. Gilal cells primarily involved in synaptic transmission are

A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) Microglia

2. The region of the prefrontal cortex involved in the manipulation of data during the working memory task is

A) Dorsolateral
B) Ventrolateral
C) Dorsomedial
D) Ventromedial

3. Ligand-gated ion channels are the primary mechanism of signal transduction for

A) Dopamine
B) Nor-adrenaline
C) Serotonin
D) GABA

4. The FALSE statement about Neuropeptide Y (NPY) is

A) It is colocalised with noradrenergic and serotonergic neurons
B) It is a 36-amino-acid peptide
C) Suicidal patients with depression have increased NPY levels in the frontal cortex
D) Neuropeptide Y2 receptor antagonists are likely to be anxiolytic

5. Anatomic connectivity between different brain areas is best studied by

A) T1-weighted images
B) T2-weighted images
C) Diffusion Tensor Imaging
D) MR-Angiography

6. "Inside to outside" neurogenesis and neuronal migration are seen in

A) Neocortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Spinal cord
D) Hypothalamus

7. In the Hypothalamus, orexin-containing neurons are found in

A) ventromedial nucleus
B) arcuate nucleus
C) lateral nucleus
D) posterior nucleus

8. The CORRECT statement about α-rhythm in EEG is

A) Most prominent in anterior brain regions
B) Attenuated by eye opening
C) Increase during Stage 1 sleep
D) Frequency increases in old age

9. The best-documented effect of endogeneous opioids is

A) Alleviating stress
B) Alleviating pain
C) Appetite regulation
D) Immune function

10. Proinflammatory cytokines are all EXCEPT

A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B) Interleukin-2(IL-2)
C) Interleukin-6(IL-6)
D) Tumour Necrosis Factor-α

11. The FALSE statement about the ICD-11 criteria of schizophrenia is

A) There are symptom specifiers in ICD-11
B) First Rank symptoms are conceptually included in the criteria
C) The minimum duration of illness is only one month; irrespective of treatment
D) There are subtypes of schizophrenia in ICD-11

12. The neurotransmitter system NOT linked to Psychosis is

A) Dopamine
B) Nor adrenaline
C) Serotonin
D) Glutamate

13. A FALSE statement about the use of the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) is

A) It covers a broad range of symptoms, including depression and anxiety
B) The scoring range is broad, from one to seven
C) It is suited to gauge change in symptom severity
D) A beginner can administer it without much training

14. The CORRECT statement regarding abnormalities in smooth pursuit eye movements and saccadic eye movement disinhibition in schizophrenia

A) They are specifically seen in schizophrenia
B) Associated with activation of medial occipito-temporal cortex
C) Influenced by medications
D) Seen during the acute phase of the illness

16. The following Copy Number Variation (CNV) locus has been identified to be associated with schizophrenia

A) Dopamine receptor D2 (DRD3)
B) Metabotropic glutamate receptor 3(GRM3)
C) Glutamate ionotropic receptor AMPA type subunit 1(GRIA)
D) Neurexin-1(NRXN1)

18. FALSE statement about clozapine treatment in schizophrenia

A) Dose may be raised to reach therapeutic plasma levels > 350ng/mL for better response
B) The Asian population may need a higher dose of clozapine
C) Clozapine may be a preferred agent when there is a suicide risk
D) Clozapine treatment should be interrupted for ANC<1000/mm3

19. Which of the following factor is not a poor prognostic factor for bipolar disorder

A) Premorbid poor occupational status
B) Inter episode depressive features
C) Female gender
D) Alcohol dependence

21. Which of the following is not a feature of a depressive episode that is more predictive of bipolar disorder?

A) Psychotic depression before 25 yr of age
B) Seasonality
C) Trait mood lability
D) High-density two-generation pedigrees

22. Low social dysfunction is a predictor of response to which therapy for depression

A) Interpersonal psychotherapy
B) Cognitive-behavioural therapy
C) Behavioural therapy
D) Behavioural marital therapy

23. Which among the following does not reflect the increase in nocturnal arousal in depression?

A) An increase in nocturnal awakenings
B) A reduction in total sleep time
C) Decreased phasic rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
D) Increased core body temperature

24. Life event most often associated with the development of depression is

A) Losing a parent before age 11 years
B) Loss of a spouse
C) Loss of job
D) Loss of close friend

25. Aaron Beck postulated a cognitive triad of depression that consists of all of the following except

A) Views about the self-a negative self-precept
B) Views about the environment-a tendency to experience the world as hostile and demanding
C) Views about the future-the expectation of suffering and failure
D) Views about family

26. Which of the following is not an element in the cognitive theory of depression?

A) Magnification and minimization
B) Arbitrary inference
C) General abstraction
D) Schemas

27. Which anxiety disorder is equally prevalent in men and women?

A) Generalised anxiety disorder
B) Social anxiety disorder
C) Panic disorder
D) Specific phobia

28. Which of the following area is not implicated in both PET and fMRI studies of anxiety?

A) Amygdala
B) Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
C) Hippocampus
D) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

29. Which of the following is not an evidence-based recommended treatment for the monotherapy of generalised anxiety disorders either as first line or second line?

A) SSRI
B) SNRI
C) Pregabalin
D) Moclobemide

30. Symptom specifiers for obsessive-compulsive disorder according to DSM 5 are all of the following, except

A) With good or fair insight
B) With poor insight
C) With absent insight and/or delusional beliefs
D) With partial insight

32. Which of the following is not a psychotherapeutic intervention in post traumatic stress disorder?

A) Prolonged Exposure (PE) therapy
B) Interpersonal therapy
C) Psychodynamic psychotherapy
D) Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing therapy (EMDR)

33. Which of the following is not a differential diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder?

A) Panic disorder
B) Anxious avoidant personality disorder
C) Generalized anxiety disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

34. A 7-year-old boy presents with persistent defiance, temper outbursts and intentionally annoying others. These behaviours have been ongoing for over 6 months and are significantly impacting his school and home life. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
B) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
C) Conduct Disorder
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

35. In the context of childhood development, what is a key aspect of cognitive development during the concrete operational stage (roughly ages 7-11)?

A) Abstract thinking
B) Oppositional Egocentrism
C) Concrete logic
D) Object permanence

36. A 5-year-old child speaks only in 2-word phrases, avoids eye contact, and lines up toys repetitively. He does not respond to his name but enjoys spinning objects for long periods. The most likely diagnosis is

A) Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering)
B) Intellectual Disability (ID)
C) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
D) Selective Mutism

37. A 10-year-old girl has recurrent episodes of sudden, uncontrollable screaming and kicking lasting 10-20 minutes, often triggered by minor frustrations. During episodes, she is inconsolable and unaware of her surroundings but has no post-ictal confusion or incontinence. EEG and MRI are normal. The most probable diagnosis is

A) Temporal Lobe Epilepsy
B) Paediatric Bipolar Disorder
C) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
D) Stereotypic movement disorder

38. A 78-year-old male with a known history of moderate Alzheimer's disease is brought to the emergency department by his family. They report a 2-day history of increased confusion, significant agitation, and stating he is seeing "people in his room" that others cannot see. He has been more restless than usual and has had difficulty focusing on conversations. His vital signs are stable, but he appears visibly distressed. His current medications include donepezil and memantine. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient's acute change in mental status?

A) Increase the dose of donepezil to address worsening dementia symptoms
B) Administer a stat dose of haloperidol to manage agitation and psychosis
C) Conduct a thorough assessment to identify and treat potential underlying medical causes, including infection and metabolic disturbances
D) Arrange for urgent neuropsychological testing to clarify the nature of cognitive decline

39. A 78-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled hypertension and mild osteoarthritis is brought by her daughter due to a sudden change in mental stage over the past 48 hours. She is disoriented to time and place, has fluctuating levels of alertness and is experiencing vivid visual hallucinations. Her physical exam is unremarkable except for mild tachycardia. Basic labs (CBC, CMP) are normal. Urinalysis shows 2+ leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A) Alzheimer's Disease with new psychotic features
B) Vascular Dementia
C) Delirium due to Urinary Tract Infection
D) Late-onset Schizophrenia

40. A 75-year-old man with major depressive disorder and chronic kidney disease (eGFR : 30 mL/min) is being considered for an antidepressant. Which of the following is the safest first-line pharmacologic option?

A) Amitriptyline
B) Venlafaxine
C) Sertraline
D) Paroxetine

41. Which of the following is a common barrier preventing women from seeking mental health treatment?

A) Overconfidence in self-diagnosis
B) Stigma and fear of judgment
C) Lack of available mental health professionals
D) Preference for alternative medicine

42. What factor is most likely to contribute to postpartum depression in women after childbirth?

A) Lack of physical exercise
B) Rapid hormonal changes
C) Increased caffeine consumption
D) Excessive social media use

43. A 45-year old man reports loud snoring, frequent awakenings at night and excessive daytime sleepiness. His partner mentions he "stops breathing" during sleep. BMI is 32 kg/m² and neck circumference is 42 cm. The most likely diagnosis is

A) Narcolepsy
B) Obstructive Sleep Apnoea (OSA)
C) Increased caffeine consumption
D) Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)

44. A 60-year-old man complains of an "uncomfortable crawling sensation" in his legs at night, relieved only by walking. Symptoms worsen at rest and in the evening. Iron studies show serum ferritin of 18 ng/mL. The first-line treatment is

A) Benzodiazepines
B) Small dose second generation antipsychotics
C) Vitamin E
D) Iron supplementation

45. A 28-year-old male with a history of a generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) presents with persistent inability to maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity, despite normal morning erections and intact libido. He reports significant performance anxiety and avoids sexual encounters due to fear of failure. His symptoms began 6 months ago after a stressful work event. Physical exam and laboratory tests (including testosterone, prolactin, and fasting glucose) are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Prescribe daily tadalafil 5 mg
B) Initiate testosterone replacement therapy
C) Recommend cognitive-behavioural therapy
D) Start a trial of bupropion to enhance sexual function

46. A 35-year-old female with panic disorder on sertraline 150 mg daily for 18 months reports complete absence of orgasm (anorgasmia) and reduced lubrication. Symptoms began 2 months after sertraline initiation. She uses cannabis weekly and cocaine occasionally. Physical exam, pelvic, ultrasound and labs (FSH, LH, prolactin) are normal. What is the most evidence-based management?

A) Add aripiprazole 5 mg daily to augment sexual function
B) Switch to bupropion XL 150 mg daily
C) Recommend dose reduction to sertraline 50 mg daily
D) Prescribe on-demand sildenafil 50 mg

47. 25-year-old male reports episodes of consuming large amounts of food in 2-hour periods, accompanied by a sense of loss of control. He feels guilty afterward but does not engage in vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise. His BMI is 58 kg/m². What is the best diagnosis?

A) Bulimia Nervosa
B) Binge Eating Disorder (BED)
C) Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder (OSFED)
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

48. Primary Somatoform Disorders are all of the following except

A) Somatisation disorder
B) Conversion disorder
C) Hypochondriasis
D) Facticious disorder

49. Common differential diagnosis to be considered for conversion disorder

A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Thyroid dysfunction
C) Malignancy
D) Myashenia gravis

50. Commonest type of dissociative disorder is

A) Dissociative motor disorders
B) Dissociative Amnesia
C) Dissociative convulsions
D) Dissociative Fugue
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